Hearth Record

M Health Fairview Woodwinds Hospital

An acute care hospital in Woodbury, Minnesota 55125

1925 Woodwinds Drive, Woodbury, Minnesota 55125. (651) 232-2185.

CMS’s own record, on Care Compare

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The short answer

Record last released by CMS on Oct 20, 2026.

The last 24 months 3 deficiencies in 1 month of the last 36. Last cited May 2025. Most serious: Standard-level. Every month

Each figure’s source sits beside it, in its section below.

What these words mean3
Star ratings
CMS rates some kinds of place from 1 to 5 stars, more stars meaning better on CMS’s own measures for that kind: for a nursing home, its health inspections, staffing and quality measures. A rating is CMS’s summary of those measures; it doesn’t promise good care. Source: CMS, Care Compare and the Five-Star Quality Rating System.
Inspection (survey)
A visit by state inspectors, often unannounced, who check a place against the rules it must meet. For nursing homes and other places Medicare pays, CMS calls these visits surveys: a standard survey of a nursing home comes at least every 15 months, and a complaint survey whenever a complaint calls for one. Source: CMS; 42 CFR 488.308.
Deficiency, citation, violation
What inspectors write up when a place didn’t meet a rule: the rule, what they saw, and when. CMS calls it a deficiency; states may say citation or violation. It is the inspectors’ finding, not a court’s, and the place is usually asked for a plan to correct it. Source: CMS, statement of deficiencies (Form CMS-2567); each state’s licensing agency.

What did inspectors find?

The last inspection on record was on Mar 30, 2026: a complaint inspection.

3 deficiencies cited in the last three years, 3 of them under EMTALA, the law requiring an emergency department to examine and stabilise anyone who comes to it.

Source:

CMS, QCOR Hospital 2567 statements of deficiencies. Released Oct 20, 2026. Updated monthly.

When those deficiencies happened

3 deficiencies in 1 month of the last 36. Last cited May 2025. Most serious: Standard-level. The last 3 years, to Oct 27, 2026.

3 deficiencies by month over the last 3 years. Each cell is one month.
JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec
2023 NovDec
2024 JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec
2025 JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOctNovDec
2026 JanFebMarAprMayJunJulAugSepOct

Hover or focus a month to read it.

No visit on record Visited, nothing cited A stronger orange is more serious, on its source’s own levels, read onto four bands: from the least serious it publishes to the most
Source:

Hearth Record drew this from the dates and levels in the source’s own records.

Each deficiency, as cited

Rule titles as CMS’s inspectors cite them, set in sentence case.

Source:

CMS, QCOR Hospital 2567 statements of deficiencies. Released Oct 20, 2026. Updated monthly.

May 7, 2025: complaint inspection3 deficiencies
  • Compliance With 489.24

    The inspectors’ words, 132 words

    “COMPLIANCE WITH 489.24 CFR(s): 489.20(l) [The provider agrees,] in the case of a hospital as defined in §489.24(b), to comply with §489.24. This Standard is not met as evidenced by: 47264 Based on documentation and interview, the facility failed to a medical screen exam (MSE) for 1 of 20 patients (P1) reviewed who presented to the emergency department (ED). P1 was brought to the ED via ambulance and was sent to another facility without an MSE. See tag A2406. Based on documentation and interview, the facility failed to provide safe transfer to 1 of 20 patients (P1) reviewed who presented to the emergency department (ED). P1 was brought to the ED via ambulance and was sent to another facility without an appropriate transfer to an accepting facility or provider. See tag A2409.”

    Rule A2400. Standard-level. From a complaint.

  • Medical Screening Exam

    The inspectors’ words, 1,468 words

    “MEDICAL SCREENING EXAM CFR(s): 489.24(a) & 489.24(c) (a) Applicability of provisions of this section. (1) In the case of a hospital that has an emergency department, if an individual (whether or not eligible for Medicare benefits and regardless of ability to pay) “comes to the emergency department”, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, the hospital must- (i) Provide an appropriate medical screening examination within the capability of the hospital’s emergency department, including ancillary services routinely available to the emergency department, to determine whether or not an emergency medical condition exists. The examination must be conducted by an individual(s) who is determined qualified by hospital bylaws or rules and regulations and who meets the requirements of §482.55 of this chapter concerning emergency services personnel and direction; and (ii) If an emergency medical condition is determined to exist, provide any necessary stabilizing treatment, as defined in paragraph (d) of this section, or an appropriate transfer as defined in paragraph (e) of this section. If the hospital admits the individual as an inpatient for further treatment, the hospital’s obligation under this section ends, as specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. (2)(i) When a waiver has been issued in accordance with section 1135 of the Act that includes a waiver under section 1135(b)(3) of the Act, sanctions under this section for an inappropriate transfer or for the direction or relocation of an individual to receive medical screening at an alternate location do not apply to a hospital with a dedicated emergency department if the following conditions are met: (A) The transfer is necessitated by the circumstances of the declared emergency in the emergency area during the emergency period. (B) The direction or relocation of an individual to receive medical screening at an alternate location is pursuant to an appropriate State emergency preparedness plan or, in the case of a public health emergency that involves a pandemic infectious disease, pursuant to a State pandemic preparedness plan. (C) The hospital does not discriminate on the basis of an individual’s source of payment or ability to pay. (D) The hospital is located in an emergency area during an emergency period, as those terms are defined in section 1135(g)(1) of the Act. (E) There has been a determination that a waiver of sanctions is necessary. (ii) A waiver of these sanctions is limited to a 72-hour period beginning upon the implementation of a hospital disaster protocol, except that, if a public health emergency involves a pandemic infectious disease (such as pandemic influenza), the waiver will continue in effect until the termination of the applicable declaration of a public health emergency, as provided under section 1135(e)(1)(B) of the Act. (c) Use of dedicated emergency department for nonemergency services. If an individual comes to a hospital’s dedicated emergency department and a request is made on his or her behalf for examination or treatment for a medical condition, but the nature of the request makes it clear that the medical condition is not of an emergency nature, the hospital is required only to perform such screening as would be appropriate for any individual presenting in that manner, to determine that the individual does not have an emergency medical condition. This Standard is not met as evidenced by: 47264 Based on documentation and interview, the facility failed to a medical screen exam (MSE) for 1 of 20 patients (P1) reviewed who presented to the emergency department (ED). P1 was brought to the ED via ambulance and was sent to another facility without an MSE. Findings Include: A hospital report titled “Power Outage” indicated on 3/4/25 at 9:30 p.m. the hospital’s campus lost power. The report indicated the hospital was fully closed on 3/4/25 at 9:44 p.m. The report indicated the hospital’s MRI and CT were not operational due to this outage. The report indicated the hospital’s power was partially restored on 3/5/25 at 4:44 a.m., and fully restored at 5:10 a.m. P1’s prehospital care report dated 3/5/25 indicated the ambulance service arrived at P1’s home on 2:23 a.m. The report indicated P1 had an infected tooth extracted professionally on 3/4/25. The report indicated P1 was found on the ground at a family member’s home covered in emesis containing blood clots. The report indicated P1 was on blood thinners. The report indicated P1 had uncontrollable bleeding from the mouth and her skin was hot and pale with poor turgor. The report indicated P1’s blood pressure at 2:34 a.m. was 77/33. The report indicated normal saline 500 milliliters and ondansetron 4 milligrams were administered intravenously at 2:36 a.m. The report indicated P1 was initially taken to the ED in question but was diverted to another hospital after presentation. P1 was an 84-year-old female who presented to the ED on 3/5/25 at 2:47 a.m. via ambulance after an unwitnessed fall in the community. P1’s pertinent medical history included aphasia, confusion, atrial flutter, and depression. A provider note written by medical doctor (MD)-A and dated 3/5/25 at 2:56 a.m. indicated P1 was seen in ED during a power crisis, which had caused a loss of the facility’s imaging capabilities. The note indicated P1 was a trauma alert due to her unwitnessed fall, facial bruising, and ongoing blood thinner therapy. The note indicated P1 required a trauma work-up including CT imaging, which could not provide due to the power crisis. The note indicated P1 was transferred to the nearest hospital with imaging capabilities. P1 was discharged from the ED by MD-A on 3/5/25 at 3:02 a.m. P1’s medical record indicated P1’s vitals were not obtained in the ED. During an interview on 5/6/25 at 11:19 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-B stated everyone in the ER has a right to be provided with a medical screening exam and receive emergency medical care. During an interview on 5/6/25 at 11:37 a.m., RN-C stated every patient who presents to the ED needs to have a medical screening exam by a qualified medical professional. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 7:11 a.m., RN-F stated all patients who come to the ED must be seen and medically cleared by a provider prior to leaving. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 7:23 a.m., RN-G stated everyone is entitled to be seen by a provider in the ED. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 8:07 a.m., the paramedic stated she was caring for P1 on the early morning of 3/5/25. The paramedic stated she brought P1 to the hospital ED despite the divert status because they had more resources to care for a P1’s bleeding concerns than she had available in the ambulance. The paramedic stated when she brought P1 into the ED, the providers did not talk to the patient or address her at all. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 9:32 a.m., RN-I stated everyone has the right to be seen and provided with a medical screening exam by a midlevel provider or a doctor. RN-I stated when he saw P1 on 3/5/25, he saw obvious facial bruising. RN-I stated MD-A told the paramedic P1 needed imaging services and needed to be taken to another hospital for care. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 10:22 a.m., MD-A stated any patient in the ED is given a medical screening exam. MD-A stated patients have the right to be treated without any impediment to care. MD-A stated on 3/5/25 P1 came to the emergency room via ambulance for a fall. MD-A stated P1 had bruising on her head. MD-A stated P1 was a stable patient who needed a trauma evaluation due to her unwitnessed fall while on blood thinner therapy. MD-A stated she felt she completed a medical screening exam while at the patient’s bedside. MD-A stated no administrative staff discussed this even with her. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 1:41 p.m., the medical director of the ED stated all everyone in the ED can receive a medical screening exam from their providers. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 2:50 p.m., the nurse manager of the ED stated everyone who comes through the ED doors need to have a medical screening exam to determine if they need care. The nurse manager stated the medical director of the ED reviewed P1’s chart after the event and did not have any concerns with the medical care provided. A hospital policy titled “Emergency Medical Services, EMTALA,” dated 10/19/22 indicated medical screening exams are to be performed on any patient coming into the hospital ED. The policy indicated the medical screening exam is a physical assessment of an individual using ancillary services available to determine if an emergency medical condition exists. The policy indicated a medical screening exam is an ongoing process, and the continued monitoring must be reflected in the medical record. The policy indicated the medical screening exam must include services that would be provided for any other similarly presenting patients.”

    Rule A2406. Standard-level. From a complaint.

  • Appropriate Transfer

    The inspectors’ words, 2,723 words

    “APPROPRIATE TRANSFER CFR(s): 489.24(e)(1)-(2) (1) General If an individual at a hospital has an emergency medical condition that has not been stabilized (as defined in paragraph (b) of this section), the hospital may not transfer the individual unless - (i) The transfer is an appropriate transfer (within the meaning of paragraph (e)(2) of this section); and (ii)(A) The individual (or a legally responsible person acting on the individual’s behalf) requests the transfer, after being informed of the hospital’s obligations under this section and of the risk of transfer. The request must be in writing and indicate the reasons for the request as well as indicate that he or she is aware of the risks and benefits of the transfer. (B) A physician (within the meaning of section 1861(r)(1) of the Act) has signed a certification that, based upon the information available at the time of transfer, the medical benefits reasonably expected from the provision of appropriate medical treatment at another medical facility outweigh the increased risks to the individual or, in the case of a woman in labor, to the woman or the unborn child, from being transferred. The certification must contain a summary of the risks and benefits upon which it is based; or (C) If a physician is not physically present in the emergency department at the time an individual is transferred, a qualified medical person (as determined by the hospital in its bylaws or rules and regulations) has signed a certification described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(B) of this section after a physician (as defined in section 1861(r)(1) of the Act) in consultation with the qualified medical person, agrees with the certification and subsequently countersigns the certification. The certification must contain a summary of the risks and benefits upon which it is based. (2) A transfer to another medical facility will be appropriate only in those cases in which - (i) The transferring hospital provides medical treatment within its capacity that minimizes the risks to the individual’s health and, in the case of a woman in labor, the health of the unborn child; (ii) The receiving facility (A) Has available space and qualified personnel for the treatment of the individual; and (B) Has agreed to accept transfer of the individual and to provide appropriate medical treatment. (iii) The transferring hospital sends to the receiving facility all medical records (or copies thereof) related to the emergency condition which the individual has presented that are available at the time of the transfer, including available history, records related to the individual’s emergency medical condition, observations of signs or symptoms, preliminary diagnosis, results of diagnostic studies or telephone reports of the studies, treatment provided, results of any tests and the informed written consent or certification (or copy thereof) required under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, and the name and address of any on-call physician (described in paragraph (g) of this section) who has refused or failed to appear within a reasonable time to provide necessary stabilizing treatment. Other records (e.g., test results not yet available or historical records not readily available from the hospital’s files) must be sent as soon as practicable after transfer; and (iv) The transfer is effected through qualified personnel and transportation equipment, as required, including the use of necessary and medically appropriate life support measures during the transfer. This Standard is not met as evidenced by: 47264 Based on documentation and interview, the facility failed to provide safe transfer to 1 of 20 patients (P1) reviewed who presented to the emergency department (ED). P1 was brought to the ED via ambulance and was sent to another facility without an appropriate transfer to an accepting facility or provider. Findings Include: A hospital report titled “Power Outage” indicated on 3/4/25 at 9:30 p.m. the hospital’s campus lost power. The report indicated the hospital was fully closed on 3/4/25 at 9:44 p.m. The report indicated the hospital’s MRI and CT were not operational due to this outage. The report indicated the hospital’s power was partially restored on 3/5/25 at 4:44 a.m., and fully restored at 5:10 a.m. P1’s prehospital care report dated 3/5/25 indicated the ambulance service arrived at P1’s home on 2:23 a.m. P1 had an infected tooth extracted professionally on 3/4/25. P1 was found on the ground at a family member’s home covered in emesis containing blood clots. P1 was on blood thinners. The report indicated P1 was initially taken to the ED in question but was diverted to another hospital after presentation. P1 was an 84-year-old female who presented to the ED on 3/5/25 at 2:47 a.m. via ambulance after an unwitnessed fall in the community. P1’s pertinent medical history included aphasia, confusion, atrial flutter, and depression. A provider notes by medical doctor (MD)-A dated 3/5/25 at 2:56 a.m. indicated P1 was seen in ED during a power crisis, causing loss of the facility’s imaging capabilities. The note indicated P1 was a trauma alert due to her unwitnessed fall, facial bruising, and ongoing blood thinner therapy. P1 required a trauma work-up including CT imaging, which could not provide due to the power crisis. The note indicated P1 was transferred to the nearest hospital with imaging capabilities. P1 was discharged from the ED by MD-A on 3/5/25 at 3:02 a.m. P1’s medical record did not indicate vital signs were obtained, a receiving hospital or receiving physician were determined or contacted prior to discharge. A copy of P1’s medical record from the receiving hospital was requested but was not provided. During an interview on 5/6/25 at 10:56 a.m., registered nurse (RN)-A stated transfers out of the ED to another hospital requires the provider discuss their decision with nursing staff who will then contact an internal placement service. The internal placement service works with the provider to find an accepting provider. Once an accepting provider has accepted the patient and a bed is available, the nursing staff can call report and secure transport according to the patient’s medical needs. RN-A stated the provider completes the EMTALA transfer forms. RN-A stated the hospital no longer goes on divert, however, if a patient presented while the hospital was somehow on a divert, they would still have to provide medical care. During an interview on 5/6/25 at 11:19 a.m., RN-B stated ED transfers to another hospital are done with the decision of a provider. The provider determines if the transfer is appropriate and completes the EMTALA form. The nursing staff then complete a nurse-to-nurse report with the receiving facility. The hospital does not go on divert status. RN-B stated if a patient were to present to the hospital while on divert status, they must provide care. If a patient needs a higher level of care, the hospital must stabilize and then send the patient elsewhere per provider orders. During an interview on 5/6/25 at 11:37 a.m., RN-C stated patients are transferred from the ED if the patient’s care requires, if the hospital does not have an available bed, or if the patient requests transfer. The sending provider and the receiving provider must discuss the patient’s care. There must be an accepting provider at the receiving hospital. The provider completes the EMTALA paperwork, and the patient must sign the form if they are able. RN-C stated the hospital does not go on divert. If a patient presented who needed a service they could not provide, they would medically evaluate, stabilize, and transfer per medical provider. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 7:11 a.m., RN-F stated providers initiate ED transfers to other hospitals they must have an accepting physician prior to transfer. The night of 3/4/25 and into 3/5/25, the hospital lost power and had to go on a hospital-wide divert. Imaging services were inoperable due to the power outage. She was working the early morning of 3/5/25 and remembered when the ambulance came in. She was confused when their provider turned P1 away. They reviewed the hospital’s policy at the time of incident and staff felt they had followed the policy and therefore nothing was wrong. RN-F stated she brought her concerns to the charge nurse, RN-I, who dismissed her concerns. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 7:23 a.m., RN-G stated ED transfers are completed when a patient needs a specific service the hospital cannot provide. There must be an accepting provider at the receiving facility, and this must be documented through EMTALA paperwork in the patient’s chart. RN-G stated during the overnight shift of 3/4/25 into 3/5/25, the hospital lost power, and they did not have access to their imaging department. RN-G stated staff alerted the Minnesota system for Tracking Resources, Alerts and Communication (MNTrac system) so the ambulance companies were aware the hospital was on divert status. If the ED received a patient during the power outage, they would still have to provide care, including transfer if the provider determined it was appropriate. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 7:33 a.m., RN-H stated all transfers must include information about the accepting hospital, provider, and reason for transfer, and must be documented in the EMTALA form. RN-H stated EMTALA still applies if a patient is on their property or in the ambulance bay. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 8:07 a.m., the paramedic stated she was caring for P1 on the early morning of 3/5/25. She called ahead to the ED and was told the hospital was on divert but was unaware of the power outage to the imaging department. A hospital may go on divert; however, this is a suggestion to ambulances. P1 was hypotensive in the ambulance and there was concern for active bleeding from the extraction site, or possible sepsis related to the tooth removal and infection. It would have taken approximately 30-40 minutes to get P1 to the next closest hospital, and therefore took P1 to the hospital’s ED. When she arrived at the ED, she took P1 out of the ambulance bay and brought her to a stabilization room. The providers on site informed her this was an inappropriate transfer because the CT was inoperable. The providers began to discuss an emergent transfer to an outside hospital as they could not provide appropriate imaging in their ED. She offered to take the patient, and the providers gave a suggestion of one or two specific hospitals. The paramedic stated MD-A then brought her hand up in a “stop” motion and stated, “We’re done with this conversation.” The paramedic stated she then took P1 back to the ambulance and transported her to another hospital. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 9:16 a.m., MD-B stated any patient within 200 yards of the hospital who needs care must be given care according to EMTALA regulations. If a patient presented to the hospital while they were on divert, they would receive medica care to ensure they were not having a medical emergency. Providers must stabilize patients the best of their ability prior to transporting. MD-B stated to transfer a patient, the provider must determine if the receiving facility has the capability to accept new patients, and they must determine an accepting provider. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 9:32 a.m., RN-I stated an ED transfer to another facility begins with the provider speaking their internal placement service to find an available bed. Their provider will speak to the provider at the accepting location and must get acceptance prior to transferring the patient. The provider then completes the EMTALA form, and the patient signature is obtained by either the provider or the nurse. RN-I stated the hospital does not go on divert, however there was a recent incident on 3/5/25 when they had to go on divert due to a power outage. They told the ambulance not to bring the patient, however they refused to go to a different hospital. The ambulance containing P1 was on hospital grounds. They told the ambulance not to offload the patient. He was outside the stabilization room while the providers spoke with the paramedic. The provider told the paramedics P1 needed to go to a hospital with imaging capabilities due to the concern for an unwitnessed fall on blood thinners. RN-I stated their provider refused to accept P1 because they did not have the imaging services to rule out a head bleed. RN-I stated after the incident, he did inform the ED manager about what happened. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 10:22 a.m., MD-A stated if an ED patient needs transfer, the provider must find an accepting provider with an available bed. The hospital does not go on divert, and they must care for all patients who come in via ambulance. MD-A stated on 3/5/25 P1 came to the emergency room via ambulance for a fall. Because P1 had an unwitnessed fall and with on blood thinner therapy, she was a trauma alert. P1 stayed on the ambulance cart while she discussed her concerns with the paramedics. She told the paramedics they should take P1 to another hospital where they could complete a trauma evaluation. She did not call a receiving hospital to make arrangements for a transfer. She did not call any other hospitals to find an available bed because she wanted P1 to receive a trauma assessment as soon as possible. She completed a medical screening examination at the bedside. P1 was a stable patient requiring a trauma exam. MD-A stated she felt the paramedics did not relinquish control of P1 to her, and therefore did not need to complete an EMTALA transfer. She does not know why she did not call another hospital to find a receiving provider. MD-A stated P1 did not say much about the situation. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 1:22 p.m., the nursing director of the ED stated any patient who presents to the hospital property is protected by EMTALA. If an ED patient needs to be transferred, the ED provider must contact the accepting provider and complete a handoff. They refer to diverting as a hospital closure. The nursing director of the ED stated when there is a hospital closure and a patient presents in an ambulance, the hospital staff must abide by EMTALA regulations. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 1:41 p.m., the medical director of the ED stated patients transferred out of the ED have EMTALA paperwork completed, which includes the name of the accepting physician, the name of the hospital they are going to, and the patient’s signature. The medical director stated he was unaware of any recent EMTALA violations. During an interview on 5/7/25 at 2:50 p.m., the nurse manager of the ED stated patients who present to the ED must be provided a medical screening exam and stabilized. They must follow the transfer process if their needs surpass the hospital’s capabilities. The transfer process includes the EMTALA forms, which document the accepting provider at the receiving hospital, educating patients on the risks and benefits of transfer, and receiving patient consent for transfer. RN-I informed her of the incident on 3/5/25 after it occurred. The medical director had reviewed P1’s chart and did not have any concerns. The nurse manager of the ED stated in the future, if a patient presents to the ED during a hospital closure, they must provide stabilizing treatment or provide for a safe transfer as needed. A hospital policy titled “Emergency Medical Services, EMTALA” dated 10/19/22 indicated the hospital must provide medical services and transfers according to EMTALA rules and regulations. A hospital policy titled “Diversion of Ambulance Patients,” dated 8/30/2 indicated in the case of a hospital infrastructure failure, the hospital ER waiting room and ambulance arrivals will be closed to new patients. The policy indicated the diversion status of the hospital shall not alter appropriate referral of inbound ambulance to alternative hospitals. A hospital policy titled “Transfer of Care of Patients” dated 8/15/23 indicated the emergency provider will contact the provider at the receiving hospital and provide report. The policy indicated the receiving provider must accept the patient, and there is a bed available for the patient prior to the transfer occurring. The policy indicated all appropriate EMTALA transfer documents are completed by the physician and nurse and documented in the medical record. A hospital form titled “EMTALA TRANSFER FORM” dated 10/24 indicated the provider must document the level of transportation, the name of the accepting physician, the reason for transfer, and if the patient is in a stable or unstable condition.”

    Rule A2409. Standard-level. From a complaint.

All 11 inspections in the last three years
Inspections on record
DateVisitWhat the record says
Mar 30, 2026Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Jan 14, 2026Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Nov 3, 2025Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Aug 28, 2025Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Aug 4, 2025Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
May 29, 2025Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
May 7, 2025Complaint inspection3 deficiencies cited
Mar 19, 2025Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Feb 12, 2025Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Aug 29, 2024Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited
Dec 13, 2023Complaint inspectionNo deficiencies cited

How do patients fare?

  • CMS’s overall for it is 4 of 5.
  • Of the measures behind its , CMS counts against the national value: mortality, 0 better and 0 worse of 5; safety of care, 1 better and 0 worse of 6; readmission, 0 better and 1 worse of 9.
  • Patients rate it 3 of 5 in CMS’s patient survey (479 surveys completed, Oct 1, 2024 to Sep 30, 2025): 69% rated it 9 or 10 out of 10, and 70% would definitely recommend it.
  • Infections, compared by CMS with the national benchmark (Oct 1, 2024 to Sep 30, 2025): central line bloodstream infections (CLABSI), no different than national benchmark; catheter urinary tract infections (CAUTI), no different than national benchmark; surgical site infections after colon surgery, no different than national benchmark; MRSA bloodstream infections, no different than national benchmark; C. diff infections, better than the national benchmark.
  • CMS’s patient safety composite for serious complications, PSI 90, Jul 1, 2022 to Jun 30, 2024: no different than the national value.
  • Deaths within 30 days, as CMS gives them (Jul 1, 2022 to Jun 30, 2025): heart failure 10.1%, pneumonia 12%, COPD 7.8%, stroke 8.6%. CMS gives no comparison with the national rate for them in this release.
  • Readmissions within 30 days, as CMS gives them (Jul 1, 2023 to Jun 30, 2025): heart failure 20%, pneumonia 15.5%, COPD 19.6%, hip or knee replacement 5.9%. CMS gives no comparison with the national rate for them in this release.
  • After outpatient care, compared by CMS: unplanned hospital visits after a colonoscopy, no different than the national rate; unplanned hospital visits after outpatient surgery, no different than expected.
  • Emergency department patients spent a median of 158 minutes there before leaving (Oct 1, 2024 to Sep 30, 2025), and 2% left before being seen.
  • 63% of patients with severe sepsis or septic shock got the care CMS measures, SEP-1 (Oct 1, 2024 to Sep 30, 2025).
  • Medicare’s spending per patient here is 0.9 times the national median (Jan 1, 2024 to Dec 31, 2024).
Ratings and measures, as published
MeasureRating
Overall ratingCMS’s overall hospital quality star rating, 1 to 54 of 5
Patient survey ratingCMS star rating from its survey of the hospital’s patients (HCAHPS), 1 to 53 of 5

Is it certified, and in good standing?

  • Medicare-certified acute care hospital since Aug 3, 2000.
  • Ownership: voluntary non-profit - private.
  • It is accredited by The Joint Commission, whose surveys stand in for the state’s routine inspections.
  • No deficiency on record in the last three years.
  • Voluntary non-profit - Private.
Source:

CMS, Provider of Services File - Hospital & Non-Hospital Facilities. Released Jul 15, 2026. Updated quarterly.

CMS, Hospital General Information. Released Aug 13, 2026. Updated quarterly.

CMS, QCOR Hospital 2567 statements of deficiencies. Released Oct 20, 2026. Updated monthly.

Has it been penalized?

  • CMS doesn’t publish fines or other penalties for hospitals.
  • Not among the hospitals whose Medicare payments CMS cut under the Hospital-Acquired Condition Reduction Program for fiscal year 2026.
  • 3 deficiencies cited in the last three years came from inspections that included a complaint investigation.
Source:

CMS, Hospital-Acquired Condition (HAC) Reduction Program. Released Aug 13, 2026. Updated yearly.

CMS, Provider of Services File - Hospital & Non-Hospital Facilities. Released Jul 15, 2026. Updated quarterly.

CMS, QCOR Hospital 2567 statements of deficiencies. Released Oct 20, 2026. Updated monthly.

What do patients say about their care?

  • CMS doesn’t publish staffing levels for hospitals.
  • In CMS’s patient survey, patients rate how well its nurses communicated 3 of 5.
  • 81% of its health care workers got a flu shot (Oct 1, 2024 to Mar 31, 2025).
Source:

CMS, Patient survey (HCAHPS) - Hospital and Timely and Effective Care - Hospital. Released Aug 13, 2026. Updated quarterly.

Who owns it?

  • 20 owners or officers are people: Melissa Ann Geller (corporate director, 0%); David Martin Levy (corporate director, 0%); Maureen Veronica-Reger Ring (corporate director, 0%); Maureen Veronica-Reger Ring (managing employee (on the payroll), 0%); Stephen Jeffrey Swensen (corporate director, 0%); Srijoy Mahapatra (corporate director, 0%); Jodi Richard (corporate director, 0%); Shawntera Monique Hardy (corporate director, 0%); Joe Charles Gaylord (corporate officer, 0%); Joe Charles Gaylord (managing employee (on the payroll), 0%); Kenneth Joseph Roering (corporate director, 0%); James Hereford (corporate director, 0%); Paul Jr Hill (corporate director, 0%); Tami Lynn Reller (corporate director, 0%); Michael Roger Connly (corporate director, 0%); Karen Swearingen Richard (corporate director, 0%); John Charles Heinmiller (corporate director, 0%); Julie S Causey (corporate director, 0%); Barclay Edward Berdan (corporate director, 0%); Timothy Engel Marx (corporate director, 0%).
  • CMS’s Provider of Services file records no change of ownership.
  • No private-equity firm among the owners CMS lists.
  • No real-estate investment trust among the owners CMS lists.
Source:

CMS, Hospital All Owners and Hospital Enrollments. Released Sep 29, 2026. Updated monthly.

CMS, Provider of Services File - Hospital & Non-Hospital Facilities. Released Jul 15, 2026. Updated quarterly.

How does it compare nearby?

  • Of the 2 hospitals CMS lists in Washington County, 2 have an overall star rating from CMS: 2 rated 4 of 5.
  • CMS rates this one 4 of 5.
Source:

CMS, Hospital General Information. Released Aug 13, 2026. Updated quarterly.

1 compared
PlaceOverall star rating
Lakeview Memorial Hospital4

What the record doesn’t say

  • CMS doesn’t publish fines or other penalties for hospitals, so none are shown. The one payment cut CMS publishes for each hospital, under its Hospital-Acquired Condition Reduction Program, is shown where it applies.
  • Only complaints that led to a citation appear; complaints that didn’t aren’t published.
  • Most hospitals are accredited by a private organisation (The Joint Commission, DNV and others) whose routine inspections stand in for the state’s; those reports aren’t public, and QCOR holds only the state’s surveys: no inspection on record here doesn’t mean none took place.
  • QCOR says its hospital inspection data are complete only through September 17, 2026, while it moves to a new system.
  • CMS doesn’t publish staffing levels for hospitals.
  • In its September 2026 release CMS gives no comparison with the national rate for death and readmission rates, though it gives the rates.

Sources

If you believe something here is wrong, a correction starts with the agency whose record this copies: CMS. CMS’s own record is on Care Compare. If Hearth Record copied something wrongly, it will fix it and log the correction publicly, with its date: how corrections work.

Source:

This copy of the record was made on Oct 27, 2026.

From the hospital

The public record above comes first. Anything the hospital adds will appear here, below it, and say who wrote it.

Replies

None. Replies aren’t open yet. When they open, the hospital will be able to answer any finding for free, and the reply will show beside that finding, unedited and dated.

Paid listing

None. Paid listings aren’t open yet. When they open, anything paid for will say “Paid by the hospital”, and paying will never change a finding, a rating or the order of results.

How to read a record

Four things every record does, shown on an example record made up for this guide.

An example record, made up for this guide

An example nursing home

Made up for this guide: no real place is shown

Not fully inspected in over two years (CMS flag)

11 health citations at the latest inspection cycle

The state average is 14.3.

Source:

CMS, State and US Averages and Health Deficiencies. Released Oct 8, 2026. Updated monthly.

From the homeNone yet. Replies and paid listings aren’t open, and when they open they will sit here, below the record.

1 of 4

Every fact names its source.

Who published it, when, and how often it changes sit beside each fact, with a link to the agency’s own file.

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